Is it fair to say that parties that have historically held power have a built-in advantage under First Past The Post, even to the point of compensating for fewer votes?
In PEI, the Liberals got fewer votes than the Greens, but won 1 more seat.
In Quebec, the Liberals got fewer votes than QS, but almost twice as many seats.
If there is a built-in advantage, what's the mechanism for it? Or is this just an example of the randomness of the FPTP slot machine?
Do you have any thoughts as to which party, if any, may benefit/be harmed by a ban in polling before the election?
Does the Elections Ontario report explain what they hope a ban on opinion polling will accomplish? The only thing I've found on the subject in it so far is a sidebar on p.50. It seems odd to drop such a bombshell idea in such a small space without providing a more persuasive argument. https://www.elections.on.ca/content/dam/NGW/sitecontent/2022/reports/2022%20General%20Election%20-%20Post-Event%20Report.pdf
Is it fair to say that parties that have historically held power have a built-in advantage under First Past The Post, even to the point of compensating for fewer votes?
In PEI, the Liberals got fewer votes than the Greens, but won 1 more seat.
In Quebec, the Liberals got fewer votes than QS, but almost twice as many seats.
If there is a built-in advantage, what's the mechanism for it? Or is this just an example of the randomness of the FPTP slot machine?
Adding 'none of the above' as a valid option on the ballot would likely do more to increase turn out than anything else.